Posted by Peter W. Schramm
I just noticed this by Milton Friedman on Ronald Reagan. Good, short, with a couple of nice graphs.
Heres a question for Steven Hayward (I can also read his forthcoming book!), John Moser with his expertise on American diplomacy, or anyone else on Ronald Reagan, particularly in regard to the Iran-Contra scandal that has been brought up so often over the last two weeks. Was the Boland Amendment preventing the president from sending foreign aid to the contras a constitutional or legal action? I ask this in regards to the presidential power over foreign policy. Congress certainly has power to declare war, regulate foreign trade, ratify treaties, etc. But, can it prevent the president from supporting a foreign nation (I wont ask about the actual situation of opposing communists in our own backyard.? The answer might be yes with regard to a precedent of the Neutrality Acts in the 1930s and restrictions on arms sales to belligerents. I would be interested in and appreciative of any insights.
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